Cisco CCNA Routing and Switching 200-105 Exam Information

Welcome to Cisco 200-105 exam blog. 200-105 exam is a required test for CCNA Routing and Switching certification. Cisco Certification 200-105 exam information is available below.

Exam Number: 200-105 ICND2

Associated Certifications: CCNA Routing & Switching

Duration: 90 Minutes (45-55 questions)

Available Languages: English, Japanese

Register: Pearson VUE

Knowing Cisco 200-105 exam topics are also helpful in your preparation.

1.0 LAN Switching Technologies 26%
2.0 Routing Technologies 29%
3.0 WAN Technologies 16%
4.0 Infrastructure Services 14%
5.0 Infrastructure Maintenance 15%

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Passtcert 300-160 Exam Dumps Questions

Which NHRP features active and standby virtual gateways?
A. GLBP
B. VRRP
C. HSRP
D. SSO
E. NSF
Answer: A

What is one reason to choose a Cisco UCS C-Series rack-mountable server over a Cisco UCS 8-Series blade server?
A. specific application requirements, like GPU computing
B. when power and cooling are constrained
C. specific data requirements, like data protection (backup) and disaster recovery (multisite replication)
D. when the environment is high-performance computing
Answer: A

When migrating to a Cisco Unified Fabric data center network, which transitions will you expect to see?
A. rack-mountable to blade servers
B. physical to virtual machines
C. Fibre Channel to FCoE
D. iSCSI to NAS
Answer: C

Which three facility challenges may a customer encounter while designing a data center? (Choose three.)
A. space availability
B. power capacity
C. cooling capacity
D. PCI compliance
E. application performance
Answer: A, B, C

Which three characteristics are associated with the access layer of a Cisco Data Center Unified Fabric network? (Choose three.)
A. no packet manipulation
B. QoS – policing
C. voice, data, and wireless convergence
D. scalable routing protocols
E. provides default gateway redundancy
F. QoS – classification and queuing
G. routing manipulation and filtering
H. aggregates end users
Answer: C, F, H​

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How many simultaneous HD calls can be supported on a Cisco Meeting Server 2000?
A.25
B.500
C.108
D.96
Answer: B

If a user of a SIPendpoint registered to an Expressway configure with only the cisco.com domain physically dials “6501”, which alias is presented in the SIP INVITE message?
A.6501@
B.6501@
C.6501@cisco.com
D.6501
Answer: A

Which description of the role of the conference alias in the Cisco Conductor is true?
A.It determines the bridge pool to be selected for a conference.
B.The conference template determines the bridge pool to be selected for a conference.
C. It is dialed by a user and Conductor uses that alias to determine the conference template.
D.It selects the Expressway to be used for media traversal.
Answer: C

Cisco Meeting Server can be deployed using three different deployment models, which option lists deployment models that are the best solution to accommodate fail-over?
A.single combined server deployment
B.scaled and resilient server deployment
C.scaled and combined server deployment
D.single split server deployment
Answer: B

Which option do Enterprise settings on Cisco Spark determine?
A.where user information comes from
B.how connectors are integrated in a hybrid deployment
C. bot integration
D.API integration
Answer: A

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Which is a key feature of Cisco Defense Orchestrator?
A. Simplifies security policy management
B. Identifies sensitive data in cloud environments
C. Detects anomalous traffic on customer’s network
D. Provides retrospective security
Answer: A

What is a main benefit of Cisco’s Clouldlock Data Loss Prevention feature?
A. Reduces cost with easy implementation and installation
B. Provides in depth cloud app analytics and tracking
C. Allow organizations to retroactively identify malware within their environment
D. Includes 70+ out of the box policies for enforcement, such as PCI, HIPAA, etc
Answer: D

Which are two main features of FirePOWER Threat Defense? (Choose two.)
A. Unify Images for more intuitive interface management
B. Provide malware detection score foe additional analytics
C. Deliver Data Loss Prevention through the virtual lock
D. Offer intuitive interface including new management options and control
Answer: A, D

Which are two key Cisco benefits of the web threat-centric solution? (Choose two.)
A. Data Loss Prevention with NGFW
B. Endpoint device profiling with ISE
C. E-mail encryption with CRES
D. Malware blocking with AMP
E. Rogue web application protection through CTA
Answer: D, E

How many web requests does Talos process per month?
A. 1.5 million
B. 100,000
C. 130 billion
D. 130 million
Answer: C

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Which products are needed to deploy Cisco WebEx Meeting Center?

A. on-premises endpoints

B. on-premises client server

C. No endpoints or servers are needed to deploy Cisco WebEx Meeting Center

D. on-premises server running Cisco WebEx Meeting Center VM

Answer: C

 

Which connector in a Cisco Spark Hybrid deployment can create a Cisco Spark room and WebEx Scheduled Meeting simply by adding @Spark and @WebEx in the “location” field of the meeting window?

A. Calendar connector

B. call connector

C. management connector

D. directory connector

Answer: A

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Which Option is an important advantage to using Cisco WebEx Event Center over other WebEx products?

A. Participants can connect from any device.

B. You can share content from your computer.

C. You can host events using on-premises conferencing products.

D. You can offer engaging events at a lower cost.

Answer: D

 

Which statement about messaging with Cisco Spark is true?

A. APIs can be used with the free subscription to Cisco Spark to enhance messaging capabilities.

B. APIs cannot be used with Cisco Spark.

C. APIs can be used to build bots in Cisco Spark.

D. APIs are used when programming graphical user interface components, to enhance Spark Messaging.

Answer: D

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Which vector object can replace the Time of day (TOD) global Vector Variable?
A. Vector Routing Table
B. Business Schedule Table
C. Service Hours Table
D. Policy Routing Table
Answer: C

You need to troubleshoot your Best Service Routing (BSR) polling vectors to verify that they are operating as intended.Which command do you use to do this?
A. monitor bcms hunt group
B. list trace trunk
C. monitor bcms trunk
D. list trace vdn
Answer: D

What property of the SET command makes the command unique when dealing with variables?
A. The SET command allows variables to be manipulated using arithmetic and string operators
B. The SET command allows you to place calls in a particular queue
C. The SET command allows a group of variables to follow a specific pattern
D. The SET command reassigns variables to new values during the process of a vector
Answer: A

Which two vector variable types are strictly global in scope? (Choose two.)
A. stepcnt
B. dow
C. value
D. ani
E. collect
Answer: C,E

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Which TCP features allows a client to request a specific packet that was lost?
A. flow control
B. sliding window
C. fast recovery
D. selective acknowledgment
Answer: D

Which three parameters must match to establish OSPF neighbor adjacency? (Choose three.)
A. the process ID
B. the hello interval
C. the subnet mask
D. authentication
E. the router ID
F. the OSPF interface priority
Answer: BCD

Drag each OSPFv2 SA parameter on the left to its corresponding description on the right?

Answer:

Which traffic plane supports the TFTP and FTP protocols?
A. control plane
B. management plane
C. data plane
D. service plane
Answer: B

Refer to the exhibit.

Which two conclusions can you draw from this output (choose two)
A. The device at the 192.168.5.119 routing table has an APR entry for the device at 10.9.132.254.
B. The packet was source-routed.
C. The device at 192.168.5.119 is on the same subnet as the next hop for the device at 10.9.132.254.
D. The device that produced the output uses different interfaces to send and receive traffic to and from the device at 10.9.132.254
E. The device that produced the output uses the same interface to send and receive traffic to and from the device at 10.9.132.254
Answer: C, E

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An engineer is configuring fault domains and front-end IO ports on a dual controller storage array. Anyvolumes that are later created and mapped to a server must be active/optimized on one controller andstandby on the other controller.
Which port mode should the engineer use to meet this requirement?
A. Physical Port Mode
B. Virtual Port Mode
C. Legacy Port Mode
D. ALUA Port Mode
Answer: C

There are several servers connected to the Storage Center through Fibre Channel (FC) fabrics usingWWN zoning. The engineer has recently replaced a server¡¯s FC HB. This server can no longer connect tothe Storage Center.
What is causing the problem?
A. The Storage Center¡¯s FaultDomains must be updated with the new HBA WWN
B. The server¡¯s zone must be updated with the new switch port to which the HBA is connected
C. The Storage Center Fault Domains must be converted to Virtual Port mode
D. The server¡¯s zone must be updated with the new HBA¡¯s WWN.
Answer: D

A customer has a newly installed storage array. The customer needs toproactively monitor and reportstorage utilization on a regular basis.
Which customizable, proactive tool should be configured to perform this task?
A. EnterpriseManager Threshold Alerting
B. Dell SupportAssist
C. Storage Center Event Monitoring
D. Enterprise Manager Automated Reporting
Answer: A

Which method should be used to map a volume to a server in Enterprise Manager?
A.In the Server Viewer: highlight the server on the list andclick the ¡°Map Volume to Server¡± button onthetop button bar.
B. In the Storage Viewer: during the Volume Create wizard, click the ¡°Mapping Options¡± link, and choosethe server to map to.
C. In the Reporting Viewer: open the mapping report, click ¡°CreateNew Mapping¡±, and provide therequested information.
D. In the Storage Viewer: highlight an unmapped volume and click the ¡°Map Volume to Server¡± buttononthe top button bar.
Answer: D

An engineer needs to install an SC8000 with four FC ports in each controller and two FC switches set upin a dual fabric. Each controller also has two10 Gb iSCSI ports. All iSCSI ports are connected to anethernet switch. The system uses virtual ports.
How many fault domains are required?
A. 3
B. 5
C. 4
D. 2
Answer: C

A customer has multiple Storage Centers at their main site anda DR system at a remote site. Aparticularlyimportant volume requires High Availability protection. An outage on one system at themainlocation must NOT cause data to be inaccessible. Disaster Recovery protection is also required toprotectdata even if the entire main site goes down.
Which technology best meets these requirements?
A. Asynchronous Replication
B. LiveVolume Managed Replication
C. Fluid Data Architecture
D. Synchronous Replication
Answer: B

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