Updated 300-160 DCID Designing Cisco Data Center Infrastructure in July

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Passtcert 300-160 Exam Dumps Questions

Which NHRP features active and standby virtual gateways?
Answer: A

What is one reason to choose a Cisco UCS C-Series rack-mountable server over a Cisco UCS 8-Series blade server?
A. specific application requirements, like GPU computing
B. when power and cooling are constrained
C. specific data requirements, like data protection (backup) and disaster recovery (multisite replication)
D. when the environment is high-performance computing
Answer: A

When migrating to a Cisco Unified Fabric data center network, which transitions will you expect to see?
A. rack-mountable to blade servers
B. physical to virtual machines
C. Fibre Channel to FCoE
Answer: C

Which three facility challenges may a customer encounter while designing a data center? (Choose three.)
A. space availability
B. power capacity
C. cooling capacity
D. PCI compliance
E. application performance
Answer: A, B, C

Which three characteristics are associated with the access layer of a Cisco Data Center Unified Fabric network? (Choose three.)
A. no packet manipulation
B. QoS – policing
C. voice, data, and wireless convergence
D. scalable routing protocols
E. provides default gateway redundancy
F. QoS – classification and queuing
G. routing manipulation and filtering
H. aggregates end users
Answer: C, F, H​

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How many simultaneous HD calls can be supported on a Cisco Meeting Server 2000?
Answer: B

If a user of a SIPendpoint registered to an Expressway configure with only the cisco.com domain physically dials “6501”, which alias is presented in the SIP INVITE message?
Answer: A

Which description of the role of the conference alias in the Cisco Conductor is true?
A.It determines the bridge pool to be selected for a conference.
B.The conference template determines the bridge pool to be selected for a conference.
C. It is dialed by a user and Conductor uses that alias to determine the conference template.
D.It selects the Expressway to be used for media traversal.
Answer: C

Cisco Meeting Server can be deployed using three different deployment models, which option lists deployment models that are the best solution to accommodate fail-over?
A.single combined server deployment
B.scaled and resilient server deployment
C.scaled and combined server deployment
D.single split server deployment
Answer: B

Which option do Enterprise settings on Cisco Spark determine?
A.where user information comes from
B.how connectors are integrated in a hybrid deployment
C. bot integration
D.API integration
Answer: A

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Cisco certification 500-651 questions and answers are available, which are valid in your preparation. Share some Cisco 500-651 exam sample questions below.

Which is a key feature of Cisco Defense Orchestrator?
A. Simplifies security policy management
B. Identifies sensitive data in cloud environments
C. Detects anomalous traffic on customer’s network
D. Provides retrospective security
Answer: A

What is a main benefit of Cisco’s Clouldlock Data Loss Prevention feature?
A. Reduces cost with easy implementation and installation
B. Provides in depth cloud app analytics and tracking
C. Allow organizations to retroactively identify malware within their environment
D. Includes 70+ out of the box policies for enforcement, such as PCI, HIPAA, etc
Answer: D

Which are two main features of FirePOWER Threat Defense? (Choose two.)
A. Unify Images for more intuitive interface management
B. Provide malware detection score foe additional analytics
C. Deliver Data Loss Prevention through the virtual lock
D. Offer intuitive interface including new management options and control
Answer: A, D

Which are two key Cisco benefits of the web threat-centric solution? (Choose two.)
A. Data Loss Prevention with NGFW
B. Endpoint device profiling with ISE
C. E-mail encryption with CRES
D. Malware blocking with AMP
E. Rogue web application protection through CTA
Answer: D, E

How many web requests does Talos process per month?
A. 1.5 million
B. 100,000
C. 130 billion
D. 130 million
Answer: C

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Cisco 300-075 exam is known as Implementing Cisco IP Telephony & Video, Part 2 v1.0. Many candidates who want to join Cisco industry and have improvement in career will choose to take 300-075 CIPTV2 exam. How to pass Cisco 300-075 CIPTV2 exam easily?

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How About Cisco 500-301 Questions and Answers?

Cisco Cloud Collaboration Solutions 500-301 exam questions and answers have been released. Candidates who want to take Cisco Cloud 500-301 exam and get certified, new released Cisco Cloud 500-301 questions and answers are your big helper. Share some Cisco 500-301 questions and answers below, and then you can check the quality of our Cisco Cloud 500-301 exam dumps.


Which products are needed to deploy Cisco WebEx Meeting Center?

A. on-premises endpoints

B. on-premises client server

C. No endpoints or servers are needed to deploy Cisco WebEx Meeting Center

D. on-premises server running Cisco WebEx Meeting Center VM

Answer: C


Which connector in a Cisco Spark Hybrid deployment can create a Cisco Spark room and WebEx Scheduled Meeting simply by adding @Spark and @WebEx in the “location” field of the meeting window?

A. Calendar connector

B. call connector

C. management connector

D. directory connector

Answer: A

Latest Cisco Cloud 500-301 Questions and Answers | 500-301 Exam Dumps


Which Option is an important advantage to using Cisco WebEx Event Center over other WebEx products?

A. Participants can connect from any device.

B. You can share content from your computer.

C. You can host events using on-premises conferencing products.

D. You can offer engaging events at a lower cost.

Answer: D


Which statement about messaging with Cisco Spark is true?

A. APIs can be used with the free subscription to Cisco Spark to enhance messaging capabilities.

B. APIs cannot be used with Cisco Spark.

C. APIs can be used to build bots in Cisco Spark.

D. APIs are used when programming graphical user interface components, to enhance Spark Messaging.

Answer: D

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Share some CCIE 400-101 exam questions and answers below.
Which TCP features allows a client to request a specific packet that was lost?
A. flow control
B. sliding window
C. fast recovery
D. selective acknowledgment
Answer: D

Which three parameters must match to establish OSPF neighbor adjacency? (Choose three.)
A. the process ID
B. the hello interval
C. the subnet mask
D. authentication
E. the router ID
F. the OSPF interface priority
Answer: BCD

Drag each OSPFv2 SA parameter on the left to its corresponding description on the right?


Which traffic plane supports the TFTP and FTP protocols?
A. control plane
B. management plane
C. data plane
D. service plane
Answer: B

Refer to the exhibit.

Which two conclusions can you draw from this output (choose two)
A. The device at the routing table has an APR entry for the device at
B. The packet was source-routed.
C. The device at is on the same subnet as the next hop for the device at
D. The device that produced the output uses different interfaces to send and receive traffic to and from the device at
E. The device that produced the output uses the same interface to send and receive traffic to and from the device at
Answer: C, E

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Related exams:

400-151 CCIE Data Center Written Exam
400-251 CCIE Security Written Exam (v5.0)

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Share some CCNP 300-135 exam questions and answers below.
How to check MTU of interface using ping? / How can you check the links mtu size with ping command?
A. ping size 1501
B. ping size 1500 df-bit
C. ping
D. ping no-size
Answer: B

What is the solution of the fault condition?
A. Under the ip access-list edge_security configuration add the permit ip any command
B. Under the interface Serial0/0/1 enter the ip access-group edge_security out command.
C. Under the ip access-list edge_security configuration delete the deny ip any command
D. Under the interface Serial0/0/0 configuration delete the ip access-group edge_security in command and enter the ip access group edge_security out command
Answer: A

R1 and R2 OSPF neighbor.
Which two statements are true? (Choose two)
(Output from show ip ospf neighbors on 2 routers, one of them shows FULL/DR, the other FULL/-, you need to know how were they configured and will they exchange routes)
A. They are not neighbors
B. R1 (non-DR) will not update its routes to R2
C. Router R2 is configured with ospf point-to-point command (R2 is the router that shows as FULL/-)
D. They need to be configured as OSPF NBMA
E. R2 should be configured as stub
Answer: BC

Two routers are connected through PPP connection. After the PPP was established the admin put OSPF running above it. The OSPF formed adjacency but after soon the adjacency dropped.
What is the reason? (The cause of OSPF forming an adjacency over a GRE tunnel and dropping immediately)
A. MTU does not match
B. Area 0 need to exist for OSPF to function properly
C. Gre tunnel destination is not reachable through tunnel
D. Gre tunnel ip address must be covered by network under ¡°router ospf 1¡±
E. ospf routes contains the route to tunnel destination
Answer: C

Ticket 4 NATACL


The implementation group has been using thetest bed to do a ¡®proof-of-concept¡¯that required both client 1 and client 2 to access the Web Server at several changed to interface status, network addressing, routing schemes and layer 2 connectivity, at trouble ticket has been opened indicating that client 1 cannot ping the (internet Server).
show run by yourself to obtain the following information:
Configuration on R1
ip nat inside source list nat_pool interface Serial0/0/0/1 overload !
ip access-list standard nat_pool
! interface Serial0/0/0/1
ip address
ip nat outside
! interfaceSerial0/0/0/0.12
ip address
ip nat inside
ip ospf message-digest-key 1 md5 TSHOOT
ip ospd authentication message-digest

On Which device is the fault condition located?
A. R1
B. R2
C. R3
D. R4
Answer: A

The Fault Condition is related to which technology?
D. IPv4 OSPF Routing
E. IPv4 OSPF Redistribution
F. IPv6 OSPF Routing
G. IPv4 layer 3 security
Answer: C

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300-101 Implementing Cisco IP Routing
300-115 Implementing Cisco IP Switched Networks

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Share some ENUAE 500-451 exam questions and answers below.
If customers want to automate and simplify the deployment of one or more new Cisco Catalyst switches, which feature should they use?
A. Cisco Smart Install
B. Cisco Smart Deploy
C. Cisco Auto Deploy
D. Cisco Auto Config
Answer: A

Which three components are part of a Unified Access solution? (Choose three.)
A. One Policy (Cisco ISE)
B. One Management (Cisco Prime)
C. One Network (wired, wireless, VPN access)
D. One Controller (Converged)
E. One Solution
F. One Security
Answer: A,B,C

Which platform supports SSO?
A. Nexus 1000V Series Switches
B. Catalyst 2960 Series Switches
C. Catalyst 3850 Series Switches
D. Catalyst 3750-X Series Switches
Answer: C

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Share some CCNA Wireless 200-355 exam questions and answers below.
An engineer is conducting an active survey for indoor coverage in a warehouse. The warehouse has long aisles with racks that extend to the ceiling.
Which antenna type has a radiation pattern that is suited to provide coverage in each aisle?
A. Yagi
B. patch
C. omnidirectional
D. dipole
Answer: B

Which governing body analyzes the applications and environments in which wireless networks are used?
E. WiFi Alliance
Answer: D

A customer has asked for its wireless equipment to be managed as securely as possible.
Which three management protocols will provide encrypted access to the equipment? (Choose three.)
A. Secure Shell
D. Telnet
E. SNMPv2c
Answer: A, B, C

What is an interferer that an engineer may see in Cisco CleanAir?
A. microwave ovens
B. rogue APs
C. malicious clients
D. co-channel interference
Answer: A

A help desk engineer is attempting to perform a remote packet capture on the wireless network.
Which access point mode is necessary to perform this function?
A. sniffer
B. SE-Connect
C. monitor
D. rogue detector
E. FlexConnect
Answer: A

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