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Share some 9i Internet Application Developer 1Z0-146 exam questions and answers below.
Examine the code in the following PL/SQL block:

DECLARE

TYPE NumList IS TABLE OF INTEGER;

List1 NumList := NumList(11,22,33,44);

BEGIN

List1.DELETE(2);

DBMS_OUTPUT.PUT_LINE

( ‘The last element# in List1 is ‘ || List1.LAST ||

‘ and total of elements is ‘||List1.COUNT);

List1.EXTEND(4,3);

END;

/

Which two statements are true about the above code? (Choose two.)

A. LAST and COUNT give different values.

B. LAST and COUNT give the same values.

C. The four new elements that are added contain the value 33.

D. The four new elements that are added contain the value 44.

Answer: AC

There is a Java class file in your system and you publish it using the following command:

CREATE OR REPLACE PROCEDURE ccformat

(x IN OUT VARCHAR2)

AS LANGUAGE JAVA

NAME ‘FormatCreditCardNo.formatCard(java.lang.String[])’;

However, you receive the following error when executing the CCFORMAT procedure:

ERROR at line 1:

ORA-29540: class FormatCreditCardNo does not exist

ORA-06512: at "SH.CCFORMAT", line 1

ORA-06512: at line 1

What would you do to execute the procedure successfully?

A. Change the listener configuration.

B. Create a directory object and link it to the Java class file.

C. Rebuild the Java class file when the database instance is running.

D. Use the loadjava utility to load the Java class file into the database.

Answer: D

Which statement describes the purpose of the plshprof command?

A. It produces HTML output from raw profiler output.

B. It produces HTML output from profiler tables in the database.

C. It populates profiler tables in the database from raw profiler output.

D. It populates profiler tables in the database from raw profiler output.

Answer: A

Examine the following settings for a session:

PLSQL_CODE_TYPE = NATIVE

PLSQL_OPTIMIZE_LEVEL = 3

Which statement would be true in this scenario?

A. The compiler would automatically inline subprograms.

B. The compiler would inline the code for external subroutines.

C. The compiler would inline the code even if the INLINE pragma is set to NO.

D. The compiler would not inline the code unless the INLINE pragma is set to YES.

Answer: A

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Which two statements are true about the working of fine-grained access?

(Choose two.)

A. Security policies can be associated only with tables, but not with views.

B. Different policies can be used for SELECT, INSERT, UPDATE, and DELETE statements.

C. User statements are dynamically modified by the Oracle server through a security policy function.

D. Fine-grained access control policies always remain in effect until they are dropped from a table or view.

Answer: BC

19.The database instance was started up using the automatic memory management feature. No value was set for the RESULT_CACHE_MAX_SIZE parameter.

Examine the following initialization parameter settings for your database:

MEMORY_TARGET = 500M

RESULT_CACHE_MODE = MANUAL

You execute a query by using the result_cache hint. Which statement is true in this scenario?

A. The query results are not stored because no memory is allocated for the result cache.

B. The query results are stored and 0.5% of the memory target is allocated to the result cache.

C. The query results are stored and 0.25% of the memory target is allocated to the result cache.

D. The query results are not stored because the RESULT_CACHE_MODE parameter is not set to FORCE.

Answer: C

21.Which three statements are true about hierarchical profiling? (Choose three.)

A. It provides function-level summaries.

B. It produces an aggregated report of the SQL and PL/SQL execution times.

C. It is useful for understanding the structure and control flow of complex programs.

D. It can be used to identify hotspots and tuning opportunities in PL/SQL applications.

E. It generates trace information for PL/SQL programs in the PLSQL_TRACE_EVENTS table.

Answer: ACD

The database instance was recently started up. Examine the following parameter settings for the database instance:

NAME TYPE VALUE

———————————— ———– —————————-

result_cache_max_result integer 5

result_cache_max_size big integer 0

result_cache_mode string MANUAL

result_cache_remote_expiration integer 0

………

You reset the value for the result_cache_max_size parameter by issuing the following command:

SQL> ALTER SYSTEM SET result_cache_max_size = 1056k SCOPE = BOTH;

System altered.

Which statement is true in this scenario?

A. 1056 KB is allocated for the result cache and the result cache is enabled.

B. 1056 KB is allocated for the result cache, but the result cache is disabled.

C. The results for only the queries that have the RESULT_CACHE hint are cached.

D. The results for all the queries except those having the NO_RESULT_CACHE hint are cached.

Answer: B

Which two statements are true about SecureFile LOB options? (Choose two.)

A. The COMPRESSION HIGH option can be enabled only for CLOBs.

B. The COMPRESSION HIGH option can be enabled for all internal LOBs.

C. The DECRYPT option can be used to remove encryption only if the LOB column is empty.

D. The DECRYPT option can be used to remove encryption from LOB columns that are empty or contain data.

Answer: BD

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Share some Oracle Database 1Z0-071 exam questions and answers below.
Which statement is true regarding the INTERSECT operator?

A. It ignores NULL values

B. The number of columns and data types must be identical for all SELECT statements in the query

C. The names of columns in all SELECT statements must be identical

D. Reversing the order of the intersected tables the result

Answer: B

Which two tasks can be performed by using Oracle SQL statements?

A. changing the password for an existing database

B. connecting to a database instance

C. querying data from tables across databases

D. starting up a database instance

E. executing operating system (OS) commands in a session

Answer: C,E

Evaluate the following two queries:

Which statement is true regarding the above two queries?

A. Performance would improve query 2 only if there are null values in the CUST__CREDIT__LIMIT column.

B. There would be no change in performance.

C. Performance would degrade in query 2.

D. Performance would improve in query 2.

Answer: B

Which two statements are true regarding the COUNT function? (Choose two.)

A. COUNT(*) returns the number of rows including duplicate rows and rows containing NULL value in any of the columns

B. COUNT(cust_id) returns the number of rows including rows with duplicate customer IDs and NULL value in the CUST_ID column

C. COUNT(DISTINCT inv_amt) returns the number of rows excluding rows containing duplicates and NULL values in the INV_AMT column

D. A SELECT statement using COUNT function with a DISTINCT keyword cannot have a WHERE clause

E. The COUNT function can be used only for CHAR, VARCHAR2 and NUMBER data types

Answer: A,C

Which statement is true regarding external tables?

A. The default REJECT LIMIT for external tables is UNLIMITED.

B. The data and metadata for an external table are stored outside the database.

C. ORACLE_LOADER and ORACLE_DATAPUMP have exactly the same functionality when used with an external table.

D. The CREATE TABLE AS SELECT statement can be used to unload data into regular table in the database from an external table.

Answer: D

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Share some Engineered Systems 1Z0-338 exam questions and answers below.
The mpstat output from OS Watcher shows a database node as being 90% idle on an average. What would you do to get a full picture of CPU utilization on the entire Exadata RAC cluster?

A.Average the mpstat id1 output from all the nodes.

B.Ask application users if they have noticed a slowdown in screen response.

C.Look for an increase in batch job servicing times.

D.A & B above

Answer: A

Which is the best location to point your customer to, for finding the latest Exadata patches?

A.owner’s guide

B.Patch database in MyOracle Support

C.MyOracle Support note 888828.1

D.MyOracle Support for database patches, ULN for OS patches, and Sun Support for Server and InfiniBand patches.

Answer: C

Which two statements are true about enabling write-back flash cache?

A.When enabling write-back flash cache in a non rolling manner, it is important to ensure that asmdeactivatonoutcome is set to YES and asmModestatus is set to ONLINE for all grid disks.

B.Before using write-back flash cache, you need to verify the minimum required versions.

C.Before write back-flash cache is enabled, you need to drop the Flash Cache first.

D.The setting flashCacheMode should be set to writeback by updating cellinit.ora and restarting cellsrv.

E.When enabling write-back flash cache in a rolling manner, dcli should be used to inactivate the grid disks on all cells first.

Answer: B, C

Which two attributes describe key benefits of the InfiniBand network?

A.All Exadata database servers have a direct path link to each Exadata Storage Server.

B.Cell-to-cell communication uses Reliable Datagram Sockets (RDS) over InfiniBand to achieve low latency.

C.Expanding from two Full racks to four only requires adding an external InfiniBand switch to be at the top of the fat-tree topology.

D.Each InfiniBand link provides 10 Gigabits of bandwidth.

E.Oracle’s interconnect protocol uses direct memory access (DMA) to eliminate buffer copies and reduce CPU use.

Answer: CE

You get a Host Unreachable error when you attempt to connect to a server through a network terminal command line. What are two other ways in which you can connect?

A.Use the ILOM Web GUI.

B.Use the dcli command at the root prompt on a database node.

C.Attach a terminal device to the back panel of the server with a serial cable.

D.Connect by using SQL *Plus.

E.Log in as root on the database node using the Net1 IP address.

Answer: AC

Consider this CellCLI command:

CellCLI> CREATE GRIDDISK ALL HARDDISK PREFIX=data, size=423G;

Which two statements describe what happens when you execute this command?

A.It creates one 423 GB grid disk on the first available cell hard disk.

B.It creates one 423 GB grid disk on each available cell hard disk.

C.It creates grid disks on the outermost 423 GB that is available on each hard disk.

D.It creates grid disks on the innermost 423 GB that is available on each hard disk.

E.It creates an Exadata Smart Flash Cache on all flash drives.

Answer: B, C

Which two DML operations will add rows compressed by Hybrid Columnar Compression (HCC) to a table that is created to use HCC?

A.INSERT

B.insert with an append hint

C.UPDATE

D.CREATE TABLE AS SELECT

Answer: B, D

Consider the following setup:

User A1 belongs to resource group High on Database A.

User B2 belongs to resource group Low on Database B.

User C3 is a user on Database C without any DBRM setup.

DBRM setup:

Database A: Resource group High gets 80% and Low gets 20%.

Database B: Resource group High gets 60% and Low gets 40%.

IORM setup:

Database A: Share=20, limit=5

Database B: Share=30, limit=10

Database C: 5 shares

Total number of shares in the IORM setup = 100

What percent of I/O will each database user theoretically be using when the Exadata storage unit I/O throughout is used 100% and no other databases but A, B, and C are running?

A.Al = 36%, B2=18%, and C3=9%

B.Al = 33%, B2=33%, and C3=33%

C.AI = 10%, B2=5%, and C3=20%

D.Al = 8%, B2=12%, and C3=5%

E.Al = 5%, B2=10%, and C3=85%

Answer: E

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Share some Software as a Service – Oracle Enterprise Resource Planning Cloud 1Z0-963 exam questions and answers below.
Five requisition lines of a single requisition document are available to process on to purchase order. But the buyer returned one requisition line to the requester for quantity modification.

What will be the effect of this action on the remaining four requisition lines?

A. They will be put on hold until the requester resubmits the returned line with the correct quantity.

B. They will also get returned to the requester.

C. They will be in the ¡°withdrawn¡± status.

D. They will be available to process on to purchaseorder.

E. They will get canceled.

Answer: A

Identify two profile options that are required to configure Punchout Catalogs in Self Service Procurement.

A. PO_DOC_BUILDER_DEFAULT_DOC_TYPE

B. PO_DEFAULT_PRC_BU

C. POR_DISPLAY_EMBEDDED_ANALYTICS

D. POR_PROXY_SERVER_NAME

E. POR_PROXY_SERVER_PORT

Answer: D,E

An organization has initiated a campaign for energy conservation and wants all its suppliers to declare their carbon emissions. The Qualification manager is asked to create an initiative to collect the information and the certificates from suppliers.

Identify the method to create a qualification area without any defined outcome for this requirement.

A. Create questions. Create and add the questions to a qualification area, but do not select the ¡°Information only¡± check box.

B. Create questions, but do not select ¡°Response required¡± and ¡°Critical question¡±. Createand add questions to a qualification area.

C. Create questions, but do not select ¡°Response required¡±. Create and add questions to a qualification area, but do not select the ¡°Information only¡± check box.

D. Create questions. Create and add the questionsto a qualification area and select the ¡°Information only¡± check box.

Answer: D

You have defined an attribute named ¡®Years of Experience¡¯ in your negotiation. You have set up scores for acceptable value ranges, and would like to rate responses based on this score. On getting the responses from the participating suppliers, you observe that for a few suppliers, the score was not calculated. Identify the reason for this issue.

A. The Negotiation type is RFI (Request for Information); therefore, scoring is optional.

B. The attribute ¡®Years of Experience¡¯ was not marked as Required, so the supplier did not provide any value.

C. Sourcing does not support attribute definition.

D. You already have a few suppliers defined in the system; therefore, the scoring did not take place.

Answer: B

During the implementation, your customer wants to understand the key features of the two-stage Request For Quotation (RFQ) available in Oracle Sourcing Cloud.

Identify three features of the two-stage RFQ.

A. Technical and Commercial Evaluation

B. Open Auctions

C. Two stage Evaluation

D. Response Visibility Blind

E. Response Visibility Open

F. Response Visibility is always Sealed

Answer: A,C,F

While creating a Contract Purchase Agreement, a buyer tries to add a Contract Template to it, but the List of Values (VOL) is empty.

Identify three applicable reasons for this issue.

A. The document type associated with the Contract Template is ¡®Blanket Purchase Agreement¡¯.

B. The Contract Template is not ¡®Approved¡¯.

C. The document typeassociated with the Contract Template is ¡®Purchase Order¡¯.

D. The Contract Template is in ¡®Approved¡¯ status.

E. The document type associated with the Contract Template is ¡®Contract Purchase Agreement¡¯.

Answer: C,D,E

Name the Oracle Transactional Business Intelligence (OTBI) KPI that indicates the count of approved requisitions where at least one of the requisition lines is assigned to the new buyer who has logged in and that requisition line is not implemented into an order, bucketed by the number of days elapsed since the requisition was approved.

A. Requisition Lines Cycle Time

B. Requisition Aging Count

C. Requisition Line Aging Count

D. Requisition Lines Volume Count

E. Requisition Lines in Process Count

Answer: E

Identify two profile options that are required to configure Punchout Catalogs in Self Service Procurement.

A. PO_DOC_BUILDER_DEFAULT_DOC_TYPE

B. PO_DEFAULT_PRC_BU

C. POR_DISPLAY_EMBEDDED_ANALYTICS

D. POR_PROXY_SERVER_NAME

E. POR_PROXY_SERVER_PORT

Answer: D,E

Your customer is implementing the full suite of Cloud procurement. They would like to know how best they can utilize the Contract Terms library.

Identify three applications from where users can access the Contract Terms library for setting up ¡°contract terms¡± for different documents.

A. Supplier Model

B. Self Service Procurement

C. Sourcing

D. Procurement Contracts

E. Purchasing

Answer: C,D,E

Your customer is a global company and has multiple legal entities across countries:

They have the following requirements:

Identify three applicable setups in Oracle Procurement Cloud to fulfill these requirements:

A. Set up the Default Legal Entity on the Configure Requisitioning Business Process page.

B. Define a primary route on financial orchestration flow to enforce the sold-to legal entity on a PO.

C. Set up the ¡°Multiple Legal Entities on Order¡± value to ¡°Allow¡± on the Configure Requisitioning Business Process page.

D. Create Profit Center BU to Party Relationships.

E. Set up the default procurement business unit for Default Legal Entity in Manage Purchasing Profile Options.

Answer: B,D,E

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Share some Software as a Service – Oracle Supply Chain Management Cloud 1Z0-347 exam questions and answers below.
You are implementing the entire suite of Supply Chain Management Cloud for an auto component manufacturing and distribution company. This company has a manufacturing facility where different auto electrical components are produced to fulfill the demand that originates from various customers. One of the components that the company sells to its customers requires specialized operations; therefore, the company outsources it to an external manufacturer instead of producing it in its own facility.

Which two steps are required to fulfill the demand for this component through outsourced

manufacturing? (Choose two.)

A. Define this component as an Item with the ¡°Contract Manufacturing¡± field enabled and the "Make or Buy" attribute set to ¡°Buy.¡±

B. Define this component as an Item with the ¡°Contract Manufacturing¡± field enabled and the ¡°Make or Buy¡± attribute set to ¡°Make.¡±

C. Select the Customer Sales Order Fulfillment check box under the Procurement offering.

D. Create a sourcing rule of the Buy type for this component in the selling inventory organization.

E. Model the manufacturer to which thecomponent production is outsourced as a Supplier in the enterprise.

F. Create a sourcing rule of the Make type for this component in the selling inventory organization.

Answer: A,C

Identify two tasks that are used to set up statuses in the orchestration process configuration in the Functional Setup Manager. (Choose two.)

A. Manage Orchestration Status Values

B. Manage Task Status Condition

C. Manage Status Values

D. Manage Orchestration Status

Answer: B,D

Which Oracle Transactional Business Intelligence subject area should you use to build an online custom port that shows the number of orchestration orders for a selected orchestration process status?

A. Distributed Order Orchestration ¨C Order Lines Real Time

B. Distributed Order Orchestration ¨C Fulfillment Lines Real Time

C. Distributed Order Orchestration ¨C Process Instances Real Time

D. Distributed OrderOrchestration ¨C Process Instances

Answer: C

Which process requires the Process Supply Chain Orchestration Interface process to be executed manually so that a supply order gets created?

A. Planned Order Releases

B. Drop Shipment

C. Back-to-Back Procurement

D. Back-to-Back Contract Manufacturing

E. Min-Max planning replenishing a purchase request

Answer: E

Your company is importing orders from an e-commerce system where a sales order is created for a laptop. The ship-to-site of the customer determines the type of power cord to be shipped along with the laptop.

How will you enrich the sales order during import to append the Item number corresponding to the particular model of the power cord?

A. Create an External Interface Routing Rule.

B. Create a Compensation Pattern Rule.

C. Create a Pre TransformationRule.

D. Create a Post Transformation Rule.

E. Create a Product Transformation Rule.

Answer: D

Identify the Order Management configuration setup that must be performed by a system administrator in order to define an external source system connector.

A. The source system needs to be called by using the web service from Cloud Order Management.

B. The source system links needs to be registered in Manage Web Service.

C. The connector service needs to be registered by using Manage Web Service.

D. The source system needs to be registered in Manage Web Service.

Answer: C

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Which two steps should you perform before deploying an Oracle Management Cloud service? (Choose two.)

A. Review entities in Cloud Framework repository.

B. Download master installed from Oracle Cloud.

C. Configure a data collector.

D. Installer gateways.

E. Review Oracle Management Cloud documentation on ORACLE.COM.

F. Review Oracle Management Cloud Master Notes on MyOracleSupport.

Answer: B,D

Which two statements should you validate before you deploy a Gateway? (Choose two.)

A. The installation user has read and write privileges to theagent_basedirectory on the server.

B. Server for Gateway has RAM and disk space available.

C. Server for Gateway has data collector already installed on it.

D. Server for Gateway has Cloud agent already installed on it.

E. Oracle Enterprise Manager repository is installed on Gateway server.

Answer: A,E

When diagnosing a server response time issue using the Application Performance Monitoring service, what is the smallest sample period that you can select to display?

A. Last day

B. Last 6 hours

C. Last 60 mins

D. Last 15 mins

E. Last 10 mins

F. Last 1 min

Answer: E

Which Oracle Management Cloud component requires SSH and SQL access to the Oracle Enterprise Manager repository database?

A. APM Agent

B. Cloud Agent

C. Data Collector

D. Gateway

Answer: A

Utilizing a web browser, which method should you use you confirm that the Application Performance Monitoring (APM) service is running on a specific application server target?

A. In Oracle Management Cloud, check if the application server appears on the APM page, in AppServers from the pull-down menu.

B. Check if APM appears in the Oracle Cloud My Services Dashboard tab.

C. Check APM roles appear in the Oracle Cloud My Services Users tab.

D. In Oracle Management Cloud, check if the enterprise application appears in the APM Application Definitions view.

Answer: A

A customer wants to compare, trend, and forecast weekday WebLogic Heap usage to weekend usage.How should you configure IT Analytics to perform and display that analysis?

A. Create two separate targets on Enterprise Manager Cloud Control, one collecting data only for weekends and other only on weekdays.

B. Perform a weekday analysis and then a weekend analysis, then overlay them in Excel.

C. Use a Seasonal Filter for the relevant days in the time series.

D. From the IT Analytics display, navigate to the Administration page and configure target collectors to perform seasonal data harvesting.

Answer: A

Utilizing a web browser, which method should you use you confirm that the Application Performance Monitoring (APM) service is running on a specific application server target?

A. In Oracle Management Cloud, check if the application server appears on the APM page, in AppServers from the pull-down menu.

B. Check if APM appears in the Oracle Cloud My Services Dashboard tab.

C. Check APM roles appear in the Oracle Cloud My Services Users tab.

D. In Oracle Management Cloud, check if the enterprise application appears in the APM Application Definitions view.

Answer: A

Which two steps should you perform before deploying an Oracle Management Cloud service? (Choose two.)

A. Review entities in Cloud Framework repository.

B. Download master installed from Oracle Cloud.

C. Configure a data collector.

D. Installer gateways.

E. Review Oracle Management Cloud documentation on ORACLE.COM.

F. Review Oracle Management Cloud Master Notes on MyOracleSupport.

Answer: B,D

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Which two would automatically create an entry in V$SQL_MONITOR?

A. a parallelized SQL statement

B. any SQL statement run

C. any DML statement

D. a statement that consumes at least 1 second of CPU or I/O time.

E. a statement that consumes at least 5 second of CPU or I/O time.

F. any DDL statement

Answer: C,F

Explanation:

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/database/121/TGSQL/tgsql_monit.htm#TGSQL789

When planning Oracle Database Architecture, which option can be used to reduce the number of Oracle

processes waiting in the Operating System run queue and to ensure that database CPU load is healthy?

A. Exadata

B. Oracle Job Scheduler

C. DATABASE_MAXCPUS=YES

D. Oracle Database Resource Manager

E. DB_RAC_MAXCPU=YES

F. Oracle Grid Control

Answer: D

Explanation:

Reference: http://www.oracle.com/technetwork/database/performance/resource-managertwp-133705.pdf

As of Oracle Database 12c, which functionality to access database diagnostic and performance has

been superseded by Oracle Enterprise Manager Database Express?

A. SQL Developer

B. SQL Plus

C. Database console

D. SQL Express

E. Grid Control

Answer: C

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After deployment, you need to verify that Oracle Network Cloud Service – Fast Connect Standard Edition is properly functioning.

Which method should you use?

A.Run the trace route command from an IP address that you are advertising over the peer to Oracle, to the IP address of the Oracle data center where your service is provisioned.

B.Run the trace route command from any host within Oracle Cloud, such as an Oracle Compute Cloud Service instance, to a host that’s located within your data center.

C.Run the trace route command from any host in your data center to any known host within Oracle Cloud, such as an Oracle Compute Cloud Service instance.

D.Run the trace route command from the Oracle data center to the IP address of the other vendor’s data center.

Answer: A

Which two features are provided by Fast Connect- Standard Edition?

A.access to your Oracle Cloud service using a direct connection from your premises or colocation facility

B.prioritized access to Oracle Cloud support for your Oracle Cloud services

C.a direct connection to your Oracle Cloud services, so data is not transported over the public Internet

D.a dedicated Tl line to your Oracle Cloud services

E.a level 2 router, which encrypts and decrypts every packet you send over the public Internet to your Oracle Cloud service

Answer: A,C

You have requested and received an authentication token from Oracle Storage Cloud Service by sending your user credentials to the service. What is your next step?

A.Activate your token.

B.Perform your operations against your service instance by using your token within 30 minutes.

C.Perform your operations, so idle time does not invalidate your token.

D.Start moving your data to the Cloud. Tokens are valid as long as your subscription is active.

Answer: B

When you request Oracle Network Cloud Service – VPN for Dedicated Compute service, which IP address range is used to configure your service?

A.the public IP address range that you want to use for your instances in Oracle Compute Cloud Service

B.the private IP address range that you want to use for your instances in Oracle Compute Cloud Service

C.the public IP addresses of your existing Oracle Compute Cloud Service instances

D.the private IP address range that is used in your on-premises data center

Answer: C

In which two use cases should you deploy an Oracle Storage Cloud Software Appliance?

A.as a replacement for a mid-range Direct Attached Storage Device (DASD)

B.as a data mover to transfer files to and from Oracle Storage Cloud Service

C.for backup of home directories and unstructured data in traditional NFS environments

D.to run applications and executables directly from appliance mount points

Answer: C,D

Identify three capabilities of the Oracle Storage Cloud Software Appliance.

A.it converts any server into an Oracle Storage Cloud Engineered System Appliance

B.it turns a server into a local mount to Oracle Storage Cloud Service, enabling file-based data movement to the Oracle Storage Cloud

C.it is a gateway to the Oracle Storage Cloud Service having read and write performance comparable to network-attached storage

D.it enables synchronous file-based symmetric replication to Oracle Cloud

E.it extends end-to-end security encryption and key management using Oracle Key Vault

F.it provides security with end-to-end encryption with control of the keys and transparent encryption

Answer: C,D,E

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Identify three differences between Oracle Transactional Business Intelligence (OTBI) and Oracle Business Intelligence Applications (OBIA).

A. OBIA is based on the universal data warehouse design with different prebuilt adapters that canconnect to various source application

B. Both OBIA and OTBI provide a set of predefined reports and dashboards and a library of metrics that help to measure business performance

C. OBIA works for multiple sources including E-Business Suite, PeopleSoft, JD Edwards, SAP, andFusion Applications.

D. OTBI allows you to create custom reports from real-time transactional data against thedatabase directly

E. Cloud customers can use both OTBI and OBIA.

Answer: B,C,D

Who are the three primary Functional Setup Manager users?

A. End Users that perform transaction processing

B. Implementation Project Managers and Consultants

C. System Administrators

D. Application Developers

E. C-Level Executives

Answer: A, B, C

Which two statements are true regarding how Intercompany Balancing Rule, are defied?

A. All ledgers engaged in an intercompany transaction must share the same chart: of accounts in order to define balancing rules

B. You can only define balancing rules for different journals’ sources. You cannot define balancing rules for different journal categories.

C. You can define different balancing rules for different combinations of journal sources, journal categories, and transaction types

D. You can define different rules for different charts of accounts, ledgers, legal entities, and primary balancing segment value.

Answer: AD

Your customer wants to secure their primary balancing segment values to prevent employees of one company from entering or viewing data of another company. You only need this for General Ledger balances and reporting.

What two security features should you use?

A. Data Access Sets using an Access Set Type of Primary Balancing Segment

B. Cross-Validation Rules

C. Segment Value Security

D. Balancing Segment Value Assignment to Legal Entities

Answer: AC

Your customer is using budgetary control and encumbrance. You have an open purchase order for $500 USD, which you decide to match to an invoice for $300 USD.

What will be the fund status of the purchase order and invoice?

A. The purchase order is Partially Liquidated and the invoice is Partially Reserved.

B. The purchase order is Partially Liquidated and the invoice will be reserved.

C. Both are reserved.

D. The purchase order is liquidated and the invoice is Partially Reserved. E. Both are Partially Reserved.

F. The purchase order is Open and the invoice is validated.

Answer: C

Your customer has enabled budgetary and encumbrance controls at the requisition level. You have a purchase order for $1,000 USD, which is fully reserved and has one invoice for $600 USD. When the purchase order is matched through the final match process, the purchase order is closed for further invoicing.

What happens to the remaining $400 USD?

A. Invoice type will have less funds available by $400 USD.

B. Manual encumbrance journal needs to be entered In General Ledger to release the budget amount of $400 USD.

C. Only obligation type will have $400 USD funds available.

D. $400 USD will be added back to available funds

E. $400USD will be expired and not available for use.

Answer: A

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Your customer wants toconfigure three business units (BUs) as follows:

Identify the correct configuration.

A. The US Header BU needs to be configured as a Payables Payment Service Provider.

B. The US West BU needs to be configuredas a Customer Payments Service Provider.

C. The US East BU and US West BU need to be configured as Payables Payment Service Provider.

D. The US East BU needs to be configured as a Payables Payment Service Provider.

Answer: D

Your customer is implementing the full suite of Cloud procurement. They would like to know how best they can utilize the Contract Terms library.

Identify three applications from where users can access the Contract Terms library for setting up ¡°contract terms¡± for different documents.

A. Supplier Model

B. Self Service Procurement

C. Sourcing

D. Procurement Contracts

E. Purchasing

Answer: C,D,E

Your customer is a global company and has multiple legal entities across countries:

They have the following requirements:

Identify three applicable setups in Oracle Procurement Cloud to fulfill these requirements:

A. Set up the Default Legal Entity on the Configure Requisitioning Business Process page.

B. Define a primary route on financial orchestration flow to enforce the sold-to legal entity on a PO.

C. Set up the ¡°Multiple Legal Entities on Order¡± value to ¡°Allow¡± on the Configure Requisitioning Business Process page.

D. Create Profit Center BU to Party Relationships.

E. Set up the default procurement business unit for Default Legal Entity in Manage Purchasing Profile Options.

Answer: B,D,E

An organization has been receiving incomplete Supplier Profile Data during the supplier onboarding and qualification process.

Identify the way to ensure that the required Supplier Profile data is entered by a supplier during the qualification process.

A. Create an initiative with questions mapped to supplier attributes.

B. Create an initiative with questions classified by Subject.

C. Create an initiative with questions classified by Standards Organization.

D. Create an initiative with questions Responder Type is internal.

Answer: A

While configuring offerings, you had deselected the ¡°Supply Chain Financial Orchestration of Procurement Flows¡± check box and had locked the feature. However, because of changes in the business requirements, you are required to enable the feature.

Identify the prerequisite step to perform this change.

A. Set the implementation status to ¡°In Progress¡± of the Procurement Offering.

B. Deselect the ¡°Enable for Implementation¡± check box of the Procurement Offering.

C. Change the Provisioned to ¡°No¡± of the Procurement Offering.

D. Navigate to the ¡°Select Feature Choices¡± page of the Procurement Offering and unlock the feature.

Answer: B

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