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Share some CompTIA Security+ RC0-501 exam questions and answers below.
A security engineer is configuring a system that requires the X.509 certificate information to be pasted into a form field in Base64 encoded format to import it into the system. Which of the following certificate formats should the engineer use to obtain the information in the required format?
A. PFX
B. PEM
C. DER
D. CER
Answer: B

Which of the following would a security specialist be able to determine upon examination of a server’s certificate?
A. CA public key
B. Server private key
C. CSR
D. OID
Answer: D

Which of the following attacks specifically impact data availability?
A. DDoS
B. Trojan
C. MITM
D. Rootkit
Answer: A

Which of the following threat actors is MOST likely to steal a company’s proprietary information to gain a market edge and reduce time to market?
A. Competitor
B. Hacktivist
C. Insider
D. Organized crime.
Answer: A

Multiple organizations operating in the same vertical wants to provide seamless wireless access for their employees as they visit the other organizations. Which of the following should be implemented if all the organizations use the native 802.1x client on their mobile devices?
A. Shibboleth
B. RADIUS federation
C. SAML
D. OAuth
E. OpenID connect
Answer: B

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Related exam:

SY0-501 CompTIA Security+

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Share some CompTIA Network+ N10-007 exam questions and answers below.
Which of the following network devices restricts traffic based on words, signatures, and URLs?
A. Layer 2 switch
B. Content filter
C. Load balancer
D. Traffic analyzer
Answer: B

A new firewall was recently installed blocking SMTP traffic. As a result, no one has Internet access. Which of the following has MOST likely occurred?
A. Port security is blocking all traffic.
B. An IDS is blocking all traffic.
C. Implicit deny is blocking all traffic.
D. SMTP is blocking all traffic.
Answer: C

Which of the following commands will display the associated IP address of a network adapter in Windows and Linux environments? (Select TWO).
A. dig
B. nslookup
C. nbstat
D. ifconfig
E. ipconfig
Answer: D,E

Which of the following uses types and codes rather than ports?
A. EIGRP
B. ICMP
C. UDP
D. IPv6
Answer: B

Which of the following functions would be used to securely monitor and actively manage external connections?
A. VPN concentrator
B. HIDS
C. Load balancer
D. Packet shaper
Answer: A

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Related exam:

N10-006 CompTIA Network+ certification

[2018 Passtcert Update] Microsoft MCSA 70-740 practice test pdf

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Share some MCSA 70-740 exam questions and answers below.
You have an Active Directory domain named Contoso com The domain contains servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2016. You install the Remote Access server role on Server1. You install the Network Policy and Access Services server role on Server2. You need to configure Server1 to use Server2 as a RADIUS server.
What should you do?
A. From Routing and Remote Access, configure the authentication provider.
B. From the Connection Manager Administration Kit, create a Connection Manager profile
C. From Server Manager, create an Access Policy.
D. From Active Directory Users and Computers, modify the Delegation settings of the Server1 computer account.
Answer: A

HOTSPOT
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso com. The domain contains a DNS server named Server1
Server1 configured to use a forwarder named server2.contoso.com that has an IP address of 10.0.0.10.
You need to prevent Server1 from using root hints if the forwarder is unavailable.
What command should you run? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area

Answer:

You deploy a Hyper-V server named Served in an isolated test environment The test environment is prevented from accessing the Internet Server1 runs the Datacenter edition of Windows Server 2016.
You plan to deploy the following guest virtual machines on the server

Which activation model should you use for the virtual machines’?
A. Multiple Activation Key (MAK)
B. Automatic Virtual Machine Activation (AVMA)
C. Original Equipment Manufacturer (OEM) key
D. Key Management Service (KMS)
Answer: B

You have a server named Served that runs Windows Server 2016. Server1 will be used as a VPN server. You need to configure Server1 to support VPN Reconnect.
Which VPN protocol should you use?
A. PPTP
B. L2TP
C. SSTP
D. lKEv2
Answer: D

HOTSPOT
Your network contains an Active Directory forest The forest contains one domain named contoso.com . The domain contains two domain controllers named DC1 and DC2. DC1 holds all of the operations master roles.
During normal network operations, you run the following commands on DC2:
Move-ADDirectoryServerOperationMasterRole -Identity “DC2” -OperationMasterRole PDCEmulator
Move-ADDirectoryServerOperationMasterRole -Identity “DC2” -OperationMasterRole RIDMaster
DC1 fails.
You remove DC1 from the network, and then you run the following command:
Move-ADDirectoryServerOperationMasterRole -Identity “DC2” -OperationMasterRole SchemaMaster
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No

Answer:

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70-742 Identity with Windows Server 2016

[2018 MB2-715 Update] Microsoft MB2-715 certification dumps

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You need to deploy a new instance, which will be used to conduct training for users for an indefinite period. You need to be able to deploy full copies of the production environment into this new What should you do?
A. Create a production instance in a new tenant
B. Create a trial in a new tenant
C. Create a production instance in the same tenant.
D. Create a sandbox instance in the same tenant.
Answer: D

You are a system administrator using Microsoft Dynamics 365.
You receive notification that an update needs to be scheduled and approved.
Where should you perform this task?
A. In Microsoft Dynamics 365, select Settings and System Notifications.
B. In the Microsoft Office 365 Admin Center, open the Microsoft Dynamics 365 Admin Center.
C. In Microsoft Dynamics 365. select Settings and Administration.
D. In the Microsoft Office 365 Admin Center, select Billing and Subscriptions.
Answer: A

You are a system administrator using Microsoft Dynamics 365. You received an email informing you that you need to schedule the December 2016 update: however, you skipped the June 2016 update. Which of the following is true?
A. You can schedule the December 2016 update without scheduling the June 2016 update.
B. You can skip both updates and schedule all to be completed when the June 2017 update is available.
C. You must schedule the June 2016 update before you can schedule the December 2016 update.
D. You can schedule both updates to be completed at the same time.
Answer: B

You are a system administrator using Microsoft Dynamics 365. You receive notification that an update needs to be scheduled and approved. Where should you perform this task?
A. In Microsoft Dynamics 365, select Settings and System Notifications.
B. In the Microsoft Office 365 Ad min Center, open the Microsoft Dynamics 365 Ad min Center.
C. In Microsoft Dynamics 365. select Settings and Administration.
D. In the Microsoft Office 365 Ad min Center, select Billing and Subscriptions.
Answer: A

You are a system administrator using Microsoft Dynamics 365. You have two production instances and four sandbox instances. A new update is coming out. What is true about the updates?
A. Updates for the production and the sandbox instances are each managed separately.
B. Updates for the sandbox instances are managed separately. The production instances are managed together.
C. Updates for the production and the sandbox instances are all managed together.
D. Updates for the sandbox instances are managed together.
E. The production instances are managed separately.
Answer: BC

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[2018 Passtcert Update] Cisco 300-135 TSHOOT exam answers

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Share some CCNP 300-135 exam questions and answers below.
How to check MTU of interface using ping? / How can you check the links mtu size with ping command?
A. ping 10.1.1.1 size 1501
B. ping 10.1.1.1 size 1500 df-bit
C. ping 10.1.1.1
D. ping 10.1.1.1 no-size
Answer: B

What is the solution of the fault condition?
A. Under the ip access-list edge_security configuration add the permit ip 209.65.200.224 0.0.0.3 any command
B. Under the interface Serial0/0/1 enter the ip access-group edge_security out command.
C. Under the ip access-list edge_security configuration delete the deny ip 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 any command
D. Under the interface Serial0/0/0 configuration delete the ip access-group edge_security in command and enter the ip access group edge_security out command
Answer: A

R1 and R2 OSPF neighbor.
Which two statements are true? (Choose two)
(Output from show ip ospf neighbors on 2 routers, one of them shows FULL/DR, the other FULL/-, you need to know how were they configured and will they exchange routes)
A. They are not neighbors
B. R1 (non-DR) will not update its routes to R2
C. Router R2 is configured with ospf point-to-point command (R2 is the router that shows as FULL/-)
D. They need to be configured as OSPF NBMA
E. R2 should be configured as stub
Answer: BC

Two routers are connected through PPP connection. After the PPP was established the admin put OSPF running above it. The OSPF formed adjacency but after soon the adjacency dropped.
What is the reason? (The cause of OSPF forming an adjacency over a GRE tunnel and dropping immediately)
A. MTU does not match
B. Area 0 need to exist for OSPF to function properly
C. Gre tunnel destination is not reachable through tunnel
D. Gre tunnel ip address must be covered by network under ¡°router ospf 1¡±
E. ospf routes contains the route to tunnel destination
Answer: C

Ticket 4 NATACL

TROUBLE TICKET STATEMENT:

The implementation group has been using thetest bed to do a ¡®proof-of-concept¡¯that required both client 1 and client 2 to access the Web Server at 209.65.200.241.After several changed to interface status, network addressing, routing schemes and layer 2 connectivity, at trouble ticket has been opened indicating that client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 (internet Server).
show run by yourself to obtain the following information:
Configuration on R1
ip nat inside source list nat_pool interface Serial0/0/0/1 overload !
ip access-list standard nat_pool
permit 10.1.0.0
! interface Serial0/0/0/1
ip address 209.65.200.224 255.255.255.252
ip nat outside
! interfaceSerial0/0/0/0.12
ip address 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.252
ip nat inside
ip ospf message-digest-key 1 md5 TSHOOT
ip ospd authentication message-digest

On Which device is the fault condition located?
A. R1
B. R2
C. R3
D. R4
E. DSW1
F. DSW2
G. ASW1
Answer: A

The Fault Condition is related to which technology?
A. BGP
B. NAT
C. IP NAT
D. IPv4 OSPF Routing
E. IPv4 OSPF Redistribution
F. IPv6 OSPF Routing
G. IPv4 layer 3 security
Answer: C

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300-101 Implementing Cisco IP Routing
300-115 Implementing Cisco IP Switched Networks

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Share some HCNA H13-612-ENU exam questions and answers below.
In HUAWEI OceanStor V3, which of the following are characteristics of virtual snapshot LUN? (Multiple Choice)
A. Virtual snapshot is based on the pointers specified in a mapping table.
B. A snapshot LUN cannot be mapped to hosts.
C. A full data replication is unnecessary.
D. Data is located using a mapping table.
Answer: ACD

What is NOT a characteristic of the Erasure code?
A. With OceanStor 9000, files are chopped in 4MB parts.
B. Main technology used to prevent file loss.
C. Parts of the files can be spread over multiple OceanStor 9000 nodes.
D. Uses a RAID 2.0+ like technology to store the parts on multiple disks.
Answer: A

Which of the following models has not been upgraded to the V3 standard?
A. OceanStor SNS5192
B. OceanStor 5300
C. OceanStor 5500
D. OceanStor 6800
Answer: A

Which are characteristics of the HUAWEI OceacStor V3 hardware? (Multiple Choice)
A. SAN and NAS convergence
B. SSD and HDD convergence
C. No need for heterogeneous convergence
D. Primary and Backup convergence
Answer: ABD

In HUAWEI OceanStor V3, which of the following statements about mapping a snapshot is true?
A. Mapped snapshots are always Read-Only.
B. Snapshots optionally can be mapped to multiple hosts.
C. Snapshots can only be mapped to a the same host the original LUN was mapped to.
D. All of the answers are true.
Answer: B

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H19-301-ENU HCPA-IP Network (Datacom)-ENU(Huawei Certified Pre-sales Associate-IP Network(Datacom)-ENU)
H19-307-ENU HCPA-Server-ENU(Huawei Certified Pre-sales Associate-Server-ENU)

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In the eSpace UC solution, the analog phone in addition to the direct connect U1900 series gateway, which of the following components can be controlled by access to an IP network?
A. AppAgent
B. eSight
C. CDR
D. IAD
Answer: D

The purpose of RTP protocol in VoIP is ( ). (Multiple choice)
A. solve the out-of-order of packet transmission
B. restrain echo
C. to eliminate network jitter in the IP network transmission
D. to provide flow control and congestion control services
Answer: AC

In the bill server no need to load License.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

About VoIP features, which of the following description is correct?
A. the transmission medium is PSTN network; the switching mode is circuit-switched; the bandwidth utilization is high
B. the transmission medium is IP network, the switching mode is packet switching, and the bandwidth utilization is high
C. the transmission medium is IP network, the switching mode is packet switching, and the bandwidth utilization is low
D. the transmission medium is PSTN network; the switching mode is circuit switched; the bandwidth utilization is low
Answer: B

An enterprise have now deployed the eSight network management, DNS server and DHCP server, now the new deployment of 200 sets of IP phone, which of the following way can achieve the batch configuration TR069 parameters?
A. in the DNS server configuration eSight, domain name and IP address mapping
B. By DHCP Option246 field batch distribution
C. using an access scan
D. via IP Phone WEB configuration interface
Answer: D

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A customer is considering IBM VersaStack as the new data center standard. The customer is attracted to the IBM Storewize V7000 storage system because of the flexibility, but the customer has legacy storage that must be retained.What is the primary benefit of IBM VersaStack with IBM Storewize V7000 over competitive converged architectures?
A. The IBM VersaStack is optimized for CISCO NEXUS switches combining multiple storage protocols.
B. The IBM VersaStack provides an integrated foundation for both virtualized and non-virtualized solutions.
C. The IBM Storewize V7000 offers many options for connectivity enabled by the host adapter card selections.
D. The IBM Storewize V7000 enables legacy storage as part of an IBM VersaStack CVD.
Answer: B

A customer is looking for a storage solution that provides FC and SAS attachment without the need for SAN switches. This will help consolidate two separate storage solutions.Which IBM disk system is appropriate to use?
A. IBM Storewize V7000
B. IBM Stoewize V5020
C. IBM Stoewize V5030
D. IBM FlashSystem V9000
Answer: D

A customer has a requirement to encrypt all data.What should be configured with a new IBM Storwize V5020?
A. Self-encrypting drives and IBM Security Key Lifecycle Manager
B. Encryption license and USB keys
C. Base license and USB keys
D. Encryption license and Enterprise Security Key Manager
Answer: B

An online shopping website stores large amounts of product data and orders on a multi-tier IBM Storwize storage solution. All data is stored in a mixed pool including nearline, enterprise, and flash storage.How will East Tier assist this organization with its data performance?
A. Creates image mode volumes on flash and enterprise storage
B. Placing new data directly on flash storage
C. Promotion of data from enterprise to flash storage
D. Promotion of data directly from nearline to flash storage
Answer: A

An IBM I customer has a performance requirements and is considering flash-based storage using an IBM FlashSystem V9000. The customer plans to move all data to the IBM FlashSystem V9000 with native IBM i attachment.Which connection protocol is required for this environment?
A. 10 Gb FCoE
B. iSCSI
C. InfiniBand
D. FC
Answer: D

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Share some VMware vSAN 2017 Specialist 2VB-601 exam questions and answers below.
What are two ways to examine the storage policy compliance of a virtual machine? (Choose two.)
A. 1. Browse to the virtual machine in the vSphere Web Client navigator.2. On the Summary tab, examine the value of the VM Storage Policy Compliance property under VM StoragePolicies.
B. 1. Browse to the virtual machine in the vSphere Web Client navigator.2. Right-click the virtual machine and select “Check storage policy compliance”.
C. 1. In the vSphere Web Client, navigate to the vSAN cluster.2. On the Storage tab, click vSAN and select Virtual Disks.3. Right-click on the virtual machine and select “Compliance status”.
D. 1. In the vSphere Web Client, navigate to the vSAN cluster.2. On the Monitor tab, click vSAN and select Virtual Objects.3. Select a virtual object.4. Examine the value in the Compliance Status property for the object.
Answer: A,D

Which are two characteristics of a RAID-5 storage configuration? (Choose two.)
A. Data remain available withthe loss to two storage devices.
B. It uses less storage capacity than mirroring with the same level of availability.
C. Data is striped across multiple storage devices.
D. It requires a minimum of five storage devices.
Answer: B,C

What is the minimum number of components that comprise a 100GB vSAN object with a RAID-5 erasure coding policy assigned to is?
A. 3
B. 9
C. 6
D. 4
Answer: D

VMware vSAN encryption requires the use of a key management server (KMS) solution.Which Key Management Interoperability Protocol (KMP) must the KMS solution support?
A. 1.0
B. 1.3
C. 1.2
D. 1.1
Answer: D

The following are the configuration details for a 10-node all-flash vSAN cluster:
All hosts contain one vSAN disk group.Each disk group has 400GB for the cache tier and 1600GB for the capacity tier.A host in the cluster is placed into maintenance mode. The maintenance mode option selected is “Ensure data accessibility from other hosts”.How much is the vSAN datastore raw capacity reduced while the host is in maintenance mode?
A. 1600GB
B. 400GB
C. 0GB
D. 2000GB
Answer: A

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