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HOTSPOT

You have a database named Sales that contains the following database tables: Customer, Order, and Products.

The Products table and the Order table are shown in the following diagram.

The customer table includes a column that stores the data for the last order that the customer placed.

You plan to create a table named Leads. The Leads table is expected to contain approximately 20,000 records. Storage requirements for the Leads table must be minimized.

The Leads table must include the columns described in the following table.

The data types chosen must consume the least amount of storage possible.

You need to select the appropriate data types for the Leads table.

In the table below, identify the data type that must be used for each table column.

NOTE: Make only one selection in each column.

Answer:

You have a database that contains the following tables: BlogCategory, BlogEntry, ProductReview, Product, and SalesPerson.

The tables were created using the following Transact SQL statements:

You must modify the ProductReview Table to meet the following requirements:

1. The table must reference the ProductID column in the Product table

2. Existing records in the ProductReview table must not be validated with the Product table.

3. Deleting records in the Product table must not be allowed if records are referenced by the ProductReview table.

4. Changes to records in the Product table must propagate to the ProductReview table.

You also have the following database tables: Order, ProductTypes, and SalesHistory, The transact-SOL statements for these tables are not available.

You must modify the Orders table to meet the following requirements:

1. Create new rows in the table without granting INSERT permissions to the table.

2. Notify the sales person who places an order whether or not the order was completed.

You must add the following constraints to the SalesHistory table:

– a constraint on the SaleID column that allows the field to be used as a record identifier

– a constant that uses the ProductID column to reference the Product column of the ProductTypes table

– a constraint on the CategoryID column that allows one row with a null value in the column

– a constraint that limits the Sale Price column to values greater than four Finance department users must be able to retrieve data from the SalesHistory table for sales persons where the value of the SalesYTD column is above a certain threshold.

You plan to create a memory-optimized table named SalesOrder.

The table must meet the following requirements:

– The table must hold 10 million unique sales orders.

– The table must use checkpoints to minimize 1/0 operations and must not use transaction logging.

– Data loss is acceptable.

Performance for queries against the SalesOrder table that use where clauses with exact equality operations must be optimized.

You need to enable referential integrity for the ProductReview table.

How should you complete the relevant Transact-SOL statement? To answer? Select the appropriate Transact-SOL segments in the answer area.

Select two alternatives.

A. For the first selection select: WITH CHECK

B. For the first selection select: WITH NOCHECK

C. For the second selection select: ON DELETE NO ACTION ON UPDATE CASCADE

D. For the second selection select: ON DELETECASCADE ON UPDATE CASCADE

E. For the second selection select: ON DELETE NO ACTION ON UPDATE NO ACTION

F. For the second selection select: ON DELETE CASCADE ON UPDATE NO ACTION

Answer: B,C

DRAG DROP

You have a database named Sales that contains the following database tables: Customer, Order, and Products. The Products table and the Order table are shown in the following diagram.

The customer table includes a column that stores the data for the last order that the customer placed.

You plan to create a table named Leads. The Leads table is expected to contain approximately 20,000 records. Storage requirements for the Leads table must be minimized.

Changes to the price of any product must be less a 25 percent increase from the current price. The shipping department must be notified about order and shipping details when an order is entered into the database.

You need to implement the appropriate table objects.

Which object should you use for each table? To answer, drag the appropriate objects to the correct tables. Each object may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.

Answer:

HOTSPOT

You have a database named Sa les that contains the following database tables: Customer, Order, and Products.

The Products table and the Order table are shown in the following diagram.

The customer table includes a column that stores the data for the last order that the customer placed.

You plan to create a table named Leads. The Leads table is expected to contain approximately 20,000 records. Storage requirements for the Leads table must be minimized.

You need to create triggers that meet the following requirements:

In the table below, identify the trigger types that meet the requirements.

NOTE: Make only selection in each column. Each correct selection is worth one point.

Answer:

You are a database developer for a company. The company has a server that has multiple physical disks. The disks are not part of a RAID array. The server hosts three Microsoft SQL Server instances. There are many SQL jobs that run during off-peak hours. You must monitor the SQL Server instances in real time and optimize the server to maximize throughput, response time, and overall SQL performance. You need to ensure that the performance of each instance is consistent for the same queried and query plans. What should you do?

A. Create a sys.dm_os_waiting_tasks query.

B. Create a sys.dm_exec_sessions query.

C. Create a Performance Monitor Data Collector Set.

D. Create a sys.dm_os_memory_objects query.

E. Create a sp_conftgure ‘max server memory’ query.

F. Create aSQL Profiler trace.

G. Create asys.dm_os_wait_stats query.

H. Create an Extended Event.

Answer: H

You have a database that contains the following tables: BlogCategory, BlogEntry, ProductReview, Product, and SalesPerson.

The tables were created using the following Transact SQL statements:

You must modify the ProductReview Table to meet the following requirements:

1. The table must reference the ProductID column in the Product table

2. Existing records in the ProductReview table must not be validated with the Product table.

3. Deleting records in the Product table must not be allowed if records are referenced by the ProductReview table.

4. Changes to records in the Product table must propagate to the ProductReview table.

You also have the following database tables: Order, ProductTypes, and SalesHistory, The transact-SOL statements for these tables are not available.

You must modify the Orders table to meet the following requirements:

1. Create new rows in the table without granting INSERT permissions to the table.

2. Notify the sales person who places an order whether or not the order was completed.

You must add the following constraints to the SalesHistory table:

– a constraint on the SaleID column that allows the field to be used as a record identifier

– a constant that uses the ProductID column to reference the Product column of the ProductTypes table

– a constraint on the CategoryID column that allows one row with a null value in the column

– a constraint that limits the Sale Price column to values greater than four Finance department users must be able to retrieve data from the SalesHistory table for sales persons where the value of the SalesYTD column is above a certain threshold.

You plan to create a memory-optimized table named SalesOrder.

The table must meet the following requirements:

– The table must hold 10 million unique sales orders.

– The table must use checkpoints to minimize 1/0 operations and must not use transaction logging.

– Data loss is acceptable.

Performance for queries against the SalesOrder table that use where clauses with exact equality operations must be optimized.

You need to modify the design of the Orders table.

What should you create?

A. a stored procedure with the RETURN statement

B. a FOR UPDATE trigger

C. an AFTER UPDATE trigger

D. a user defined function

Answer: D

You are a database developer for a company. The company has a server that has multiple physical disks. The disks are not part of a RAID array. The server hosts three Microsoft SQL Server instances. There are many SQL jobs that run during off-peak hours. You must monitor the SQL Server instances in real time and optimize the server to maximize throughput, response time, and overall SQL performance. You need to create a baseline set of metrics to report how the computer running SQL Server operates under normal load. The baseline must include the resource usage associated with the server processes. What should you do?

A. A. Create a sys.dm_os_waiting_tasks query.

B. Create a sys.dm_exec_sessions query.

C. Create a Performance Monitor Data Collector Set.

D. Create a sys.dm_os_memory_objects query.

E. Create a sp_configure ‘max server memory’ query.

F. Create a SQL Profiler trace.

G. Create asys.dm_os_wait_stats query.

H. Create an Extended Event.

Answer: D

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Share some Cloud Architect E05-001 exam questions and answers below.
Which data center management process involves collating and presenting the utilization of resources?

A. Reporting

B. Provisioning

C. Planning

D. Maintenance

Answer: A

Which cloud service does VMware vCloud Air provide?

A. Infrastructure as a Service

B. Platform as a Service

C. Database as a Service

D. Software as a Service

Answer: A

Which type of digital data has no defined format but has a self-describing structure that enables its analysis?

A. Semi-structured data

B. Structured data

C. Metadata

D. Quasi-structured data

Answer: A

Which process groups multiple physical drives and presents them to a compute system as a single logical volume?

A. Concatenation

B. Partitioning

C. Striping

D. Orchestration

Answer: A

What is an accurate statement about a hybrid cloud?

A. Supports data and application portability for load balancing between clouds

B. Allows organizations with common concerns to share the cost of deploying the cloud

C. Enables the entire cloud infrastructure to be controlled by the consumer’s IT staff

D. Allows an organization to outsource the implementation of a private cloud to a cloud provider

Answer: A

What is a function of a virtual machine manager?

A. Abstracts physical hardware and presents it to a virtual machine

B. Sends resource requests from multiple virtual machines to the hypervisor kernel

C. Maps the virtual machine hardware to the hypervisor kernel

D. Presents resource requests from a virtual machine directly to physical hardware

Answer: A

What is signified by the ¡°variability¡± characteristic of big data?

A. Meaning of the data changes constantly

B. Data is generated in different formats by numerous sources

C. Data change rate affects its timely analysis

D. Varying data quality affects its reliability and accuracy

Answer: A

Which type of digital data consists of textual data with inconsistent formats but can be formatted with the use of software tools?

A. Quasi-structured data

B. Semi-structured data

C. Metadata

D. Unstructured data

Answer: A

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Which of the following business patterns cannot coexist in the air interface? (Multiple choice)

A. Native E1 +MPLS Eth

B. CES E1+MPLS Eth

C. CES E1 + Native Eth

D. MPLS Eth + Native Eth

Answer: CD

From the functional level, which of several parts does ASON consist of? (Multiple choice)

A. Management Plane

B. Control Plane

C. Transfer plane

D. Physical Plane

Answer: ABC

Which of the following functions can SDH network management usually achieve? (Multiple choice)

A. SDH alarm display

B. SDH electrical port business configuration

C. SDH electrical port loopback test

D. SDH optical port performance monitoring

Answer: ABCD

What is the name of the MS OTN?

A. Packet Enhanced Optical Transport Network

B. Multi-service optical transport network

C. Packet Exchange Optical Transport Network

Answer: B

Which approach’s adoption is an important innovation for SDH, that eliminates the delay and performance penalties associated with sliding registers in conventional PDH systems?

A. Virtual container structure

B. Pointer processing

C. Simultaneous multiplexing

D. Interpolation of bytes

Answer: B

Which of the following are included in the types of services supported by PTN? (Multiple choice)

A. TDM E1、STM-N

B. ATM IMA E1、ATM STM-N

C. FE/GE/10GE

D. POS business

Answer: ABCD

Which of the following reason may cause SDH “management unit pointer missing” alarm? (Multiple choice)

A. Transmitter timing failure

B. The transmitter is not configured with cross-board service

C. Receive error code is too large

D. PCM branch failure

Answer: ABC

Which of the following components do 100G key technologies consist of? (Multiple choice)

A. WDM side interface technology

B. OTN processing technology

C. Client-side interface technology

Answer: ABC

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When defining which resources on the destination system the replicated item will use for an asynchronous session, which settings must be provided?

A. Replication Mode, RPO, and Replicate To

B. Name, Pool, and Storage Processor

C. Ethernet Port, Subnet/Prefix Length, and Gateway

D. Management IP Address, User Name, and Password

Answer: A

When the LUN Snapshot Attach to Host operation is performed, what does theUnity system optionally do before beginning the attach process?

A. Creates a snapshot of the LUN

B. Detaches the host from the snapshots of any other LUN

C. Creates a copy of the snapshot

D. Deletes all other existing snapshots of the LUN

Answer: C

How is encryption set for a Unity storage system?

A. Clicking the “Mode” checkbox on the Manage Encryption page

B. Selecting “Status’ on the Manage Encryption page

C. Automatically set at the factory

D. First time the license is applied

Answer: D

In UnityVSA, what is the maximum storage capacity offered by the WOLslicense?

A. 4TB

B. 10TB

C. 25TB

D. 50TB

Answer: D

On which systems is Quality of Service available?

A. Physical Unity systems only

B. UnityVSA systems only

C. Physical Unity and UnityVSA systems

D. All Flash Unity systems only

Answer: D

A Unity system LUN has a daily snapshot schedule with a Retention Policy of seven days. A hardware failure results in a double fault of theLUN. Which snapshot behavior will be experienced?

A. All of the snapshots will be unavailable to restore data from

B. Data restoration is available from the oldest snapshot, all others are unavailable

C. All of the snapshots will be available torestore data from

D. Data restoration is available from the newest snapshot, all others are unavailable

Answer: D

When defining which resources on the destination system the replicated item will use for an asynchronous session, which settings must be provided?

A. Replication Mode, RPO, and Replicate To

B. Name, Pool, and Storage Processor

C. Ethernet Port, Subnet/Prefix Length, and Gateway

D. Management IP Address, User Name, and Password

Answer: A

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What is the speed of the cluster interconnect ports on a FAS2552?

A. 10 Gb

B. 1 Gb

C. 8 Gb

D. 16 Gb

Answer: A

What is true about a node root volume?

A. There is a root volume on every node in a cluster.

B. It is the root of a data SVM¡¯s namespace.

C. You can use vol move to move it to an aggregate on a different node.

D. It is the most secure place to store critical user data.

Answer: B

What is the maximum number of nodes allowed in an FAS8000 series with a SAN configuration?

A. 24

B. 8

C. 4

D. 2

Answer: B

You create an SVM named svm7. Its DNS name is ntap7. In svm7, you create a volume named vol1 with a junction path of /users.

An NFS client would mount the root of vol1 using which path?

A. svm7:/users

B. ntap7:/users

C. ntap7:/vol1

D. svm7:/vol1

Answer: B

Which data protocol is available to use on an SVM?

A. FTP

B. CIFS

C. HTTP

D. TFTP

Answer: B

When assigning shelf IDs to SAS-connected shelves, which statement is true?

A. They only need to be unique within an HA pair.

B. They only need to be unique within a stack.

C. They only need to be unique within a node.

D. They need to be unique within a cluster.

Answer: A

You create a 150 GB thick-provisioned volume. In that volume, you create a 50 GB LUN with space-reserve enabled. You create another 50 GB LUN with space-reserve disabled. Before any data is written to either LUN or a Snapshot is taken, how much space will be available in the volume for additional LUNs?

A. 150 GB

B. 100 GB

C. 75 GB

D. 50 GB

Answer: B

You have a 4-node cluster serving home directories over two IPs per node.

Which two methods would you use to set up DNS load balancing over a single name to the eight IP addresses? (Choose two.)

A. On-Box DNS using a DNS delegation record

B. Off-Box Round Robin DNS

C. On-Node PTR records with reverse lookup per node

D. Off-Node CNAME records for each node management interface

Answer: A,B

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What would improve overall utilization of physical memory resources by allowing a group of partitions to share a pool of physics memory resources?

A. Active Memory Expansion

PowerHA Enterprise Edition

B. Active Memory Sharing

PowerVM Standard Edition

C. Active Memory Sharing

PowerVM Enterprise Edition

D. Active Memory Mirroring

PowerVM Standard Edition

Answer: C

A customer has 20 partitions on a POWER8 system and would like to additional storage from their non-IBM SAN to eh of the partitions. The cost of the licenses for the drivers and multipath for all the partitions is higher than the current budget limits.

Which of the following technologies will help with reducing the driver and multipath software licensing requirement?

A. SAS

B. NPIV

C. SSD

D. vSCSI

Answer: D

A technical specialist will be tasked to add partitions to an existing server.

Which browser-based tool will vid the configuration design to ensure that the requirements are within maximum server resources?

A. Energy Estimator

B. Econfig

C. System Planning Tool

D. Workload Estimator

Answer: C

A customer wants to purchase a server for Hadoop solution with the lowest TCA.

Which of the following provides the lowest TCA for the requirement?

A. S822LC

B. S812LC

C. S812L

D. S822L

Answer: B

A customer wants to virtualize their storage environment and would like to use NPIV.

Where will storage multipathing take place?

A. Client LPAR

B. VIOS LPAR

C. vSCSI LPAR

D. NFS LPAR

Answer: A

Which of the following Power Scale-Out operating systems includes integrated database and middleware components?

A. Ubuntu

B. SUSE

C. AIX

D. IBM i

Answer: D

Which LC server is delivered with four available (unoccupied) CAPI-enabled slots?

A. S822LC Commercial

B. S812LC Cloud

C. S812LC Cluster

D. S822LC High Performance Computing (HPC)

Answer: A

Which technology provides simple virtualization for Ethernet, with quality of service controls that specify minimum bandwidth per partition?

A. SR-IOV (Single Root I/O Virtualization)

B. HEA (Host Ethernet Adapter)

C. CAN (Converged Network Adapter)

D. SEA (Shared Ethernet Adapter)

Answer: A

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In the inter-domain packet filtering, which of the following options belong to the outbound direction?

A. trust -> untrust

B. untrust -> trust

C. untrust -> dmz

D. trust -> local

Answer: A

The main functions of the VIM management module in NFV include resource discovery, resource allocation, resource management, and _______.

A. resource scheduling

B. resource monitoring

C. resource recycling

D. troubleshooting

Answer: D

Which of the following is the commands of configuring the SDN controller listen for address?

A. openflow listening-ip 1.1.1.1

B. sdn controller souce-address 1.1.1.1

C. controller-ip 1.1.1.1

D. sdn listening-ip 1.1.1.1

Answer: A

Which of the following options does the role of Agile Controller server not include?

A. Business Manager

B. Business controller

C. Security manager

D. Business checker

Answer: D

Traditional packet loss strategy uses the method of Tail-Drop, which leads to TCP global synchronization phenomenon.

A. True

B. False

Answer: A

In the Agile Controller admission control scenario, which of the following description about RADIUS server and client role is correct?

A. Agile Controller integrates all functions of RADIUS server and the client.

B. The Agile Controller as the RADIUS server end and the user terminal as the RADIUS client.

C. The authentication device (e.g., 802.1 X switch) as the RADIUS server end and the user terminal as the RADIUS client.

D. The Agile Controller as the RADIUS server and authentication devices (e.g., 802.1 X switches) as RADIUS client.

Answer: D

The VPN configuration on a device is as follows: which description of this configuration command is correct?

A. This command is configured on the CE device of the customer network.

B. route-distinguisher 1: 1 indicates that the RD value is 1: 1, the RD does not need to be globally unique.

C. vpn-target 1: 1 export-extcommunity indicates that the VPN export target is 1: 1.

D. vpn-target 2: 2 import-extcommunity indicates that the VPN import target is 2: 2 and the import target can only set to one.

Answer: C

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Share some CCNP Data Center 300-165 exam questions and answers below.
Which of the following Cisco Nexus features is best managed with DCNM-LAN?

A. VSS

B. Domain parameters

C. Virtual switches

D. AAA

Answer: C

Which statement about the Layer 3 card on the Cisco Nexus 5500 Series Switch is true?

A. BGP support is not provided, but RIP, EIGRP, and OSPF support is provided.

B. Up to two 4-port cards are supported with up to 160 Gb/s of Layer 3 forwarding capability.

C. Up to 16 FEX connections are supported.

D. Port channels cannot be configured as Layer 3 interfaces.

Answer: C

Which three items must be configured in the port profile client in Cisco UCS Manager? (Choose three.)

A. port profile

B. DVS

C. data center

D. folder

E. vCenter IP address

F. VM port group

Answer: B, C, D

How is a dynamic vNIC allocated?

A. Dynamic vNICs are assigned to VMs in vCenter.

B. Dynamic vNICs can only be bound to the service profile through an updating template.

C. Dynamic vNICs are bound directly to a service profile.

D. Dynamic vNICs are assigned by binding a port profile to the service profile.

Answer: C

Which statement about RADIUS configuration distribution using Cisco Fabric Services on a Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switch is true?

A. Cisco Fabric Services does not distribute the RADIUS server group configuration or server and global keys.

B. Enabling Cisco Fabric Services causes the existing RADIUS configuration on your Cisco NX-OS device to be immediately distributed.

C. When the RADIUS configuration is being simultaneously changed on more than one device in a Cisco Fabric Services region, the most recent changes will take precedence.

D. Only the Cisco NX-OS device with the lowest IP address in the Cisco Fabric Services region can lock the RADIUS configuration.

Answer: A

Which two statements about Cisco Nexus 7000 line cards are true? (Choose two.)

A. M1, M2, and F1 cards are allowed in the same VDC.

B. M line cards are service-oriented and likely face the access layer and provide Layer 2 connectivity.

C. F line cards are performance-oriented and likely connect northbound to the core layer for Layer 3 connectivity.

D. M line cards support Layer 2, Layer 3, and Layer 4 with large forwarding tables and a rich feature set.

E. The F2 line card must reside in the admin VDC.

Answer: A, D

In the dynamic vNIC creation wizard, why are choices for Protection important?

A. They allow reserve vNICs to be allocated out of the spares pool.

B. They enable hardware-based failover.

C. They select the primary fabric association for dynamic vNICs.

D. They allow dynamic vNICs to be reserved for fabric failover.

Answer: C

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Share some Cisco Network Programmability Design and Implementation Specialist 300-550 exam questions and answers below.
What are two node types in a YANG data model? (Choose two.)

A. grouping

B. leaf

C. container

D. module

E. instance

Answer: AB

An organization leverages a multivendor network to sell connectivity services using Layer 3 VPN and VPLS. Where possible, the organization wants to use common APis across vendors, in order to automate the configuration of network services.

Which technology should the organization consider for the southbound interface?

A. BGP-LS

B. OpFlex

C. OpenFlow

D. NETCONF

E. PCEP

Answer: D

Where is the node-ui.log stored on the Cisco APIC-EM appliance?

A. in the /var/log/grapevine/services/node-ui directory within the container that is running the node-ui instance

B. in the Cassandra database instance that is running within the container that is running the node-ui instance

C. in the /opt/CSCOapicem/logs/node-ui directory within the Cisco APIC-EM appliance root

D. in the /var/log/grapevine/services/node-ui directory within the Cisco APIC-EM appliance root

E. in the Cisco APIC-EM Cassandra database instance

Answer: D

Which two statements about the NX-API are true? (Choose two.)

A. NX-API supports XML-RPC

B. NX-API is enabled by default

C. NX-API supports JSON-RPC.

D. The nxapi_auth cookie expires in 30 minutes.

E. NX-API maps to NX-05 NETCONF.

Answer: CD

Which two statements about OpenFlow are true? (Choose two.)

A. The Open Flow table contains header fields, counters, and actions.

B. OpenFlow automatically determines network forwarding rules.

C. OpenFlow interfaces with the management plane.

D. OpenFlow is a southbound protocol.

E. OpenFlow is an agentless technology, like Ansible.

F. OpenFlow is a northbound protocol.

Answer: BC

Which statement is used to associate a submodule and a parent module in a YANG data model?

A. import

B. namespace

C. include

D. belongs-to

Answer: B

Which statement is used to associate a submodule and a parent module in a YANG data model?

A. import

B. namespace

C. include

D. belongs-to

Answer: B

Which network configuration protocol uses JSON as a data representation format?

A. NETCONE

B. SOAP

C. RESTCONF

D. HTML

Answer: B

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Share some Palo alto Networks ACE Certification PCNSE7 exam questions and answers below.
The GlobalProtect Portal interface and IP address have been configured. Which other value needs to be defined to complete the network settings configuration of GlobalPortect Portal?

A. Server Certificate

B. Client Certificate

C. Authentication Profile

D. Certificate Profile

Answer: A

Which client software can be used to connect remote Linux client into a Palo Alto Networks Infrastructure without sacrificing the ability to scan traffic and protect against threats?

A. X-Auth IPsec VPN

B. GlobalProtect Apple IOS

C. GlobalProtect SSL

D. GlobalProtect Linux

Answer: D

A company has a pair of Palo Alto Networks firewalls configured as an Acitve/Passive High Availability (HA) pair.

What allows the firewall administrator to determine the last date a failover event occurred?

A. From the CLI issue use the show System log

B. Apply the filter subtype eq ha to the System log

C. Apply the filter subtype eq ha to the configuration log

D. Check the status of the High Availability widget on the Dashboard of the GUI

Answer: D

The web server is configured to listen for HTTP traffic on port 8080. The clients access the web server using the IP address 1.1.1.100 on TCP Port 80. The destination NAT rule is configured to translate both IP address and report to 10.1.1.100 on TCP Port 8080. Which NAT and security rules must be configured on the firewall? (Choose two)

A. A security policy with a source of any from untrust-I3 Zone to a destination of 10.1.1.100 in dmz-I3 zone using web-browsing application

B. A NAT rule with a source of any from untrust-I3 zone to a destination of 10.1.1.100 in dmz-zone using service-http service.

C. A NAT rule with a source of any from untrust-I3 zone to a destination of 1.1.1.100 in untrust-I3 zone using service-http service.

D. A security policy with a source of any from untrust-I3 zone to a destination of 1.1.100 in dmz-I3 zone using web-browsing application.

Answer: A

Which command can be used to validate a Captive Portal policy?

A. eval captive-portal policy <criteria>

B. request cp-policy-eval <criteria>

C. test cp-policy-match <criteria>

D. debug cp-policy <criteria>

Answer: C

Which client software can be used to connect remote Linux client into a Palo Alto Networks Infrastructure without sacrificing the ability to scan traffic and protect against threats?

A. X-Auth IPsec VPN

B. GlobalProtect Apple IOS

C. GlobalProtect SSL

D. GlobalProtect Linux

Answer: A

Only two Trust to Untrust allow rules have been created in the Security policy

Rule1 allows google-base

Rule2 allows youtube-base

The youtube-base App-ID depends on google-base to function. The google-base App-ID implicitly uses SSL and web-browsing. When user try to accesss https://www.youtube.com in a web browser, they get an error indecating that the server cannot be found.

Which action will allow youtube.com display in the browser correctly?

A. Add SSL App-ID to Rule1

B. Create an additional Trust to Untrust Rule, add the web-browsing, and SSL App-ID’s to it

C. Add the DNS App-ID to Rule2

D. Add the Web-browsing App-ID to Rule2

Answer: C

A company has a pair of Palo Alto Networks firewalls configured as an Acitve/Passive High Availability (HA) pair. What allows the firewall administrator to determine the last date a failover event occurred?

A. From the CLI issue use the show System log

B. Apply the filter subtype eq ha to the System log

C. Apply the filter subtype eq ha to the configuration log

D. Check the status of the High Availability widget on the Dashboard of the GUI

Answer: D

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